Please show all the work

Question 1

A manufacturer produces umbrellas with the following parameters:

The monthly demand for umbrellas is 3000

Daily usage is 100 (assume 1 month = 30 days and demand is uniform throughout the month)

The production rate is 400 per day

Setup cost is $200 for a run

Holding cost is $1 per umbrella per month

What is the economic production quantity?

Question 2

Suppose a gas station has expected sales of 6000 gallons during lead time. Sales are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 400 gallons.

To avoid stockouts with probability P(z < +3.00), what should be the reorder point?

Question 3

Suppose a gas station has daily sales of 1500. Expected lead time is four days, normally distributed with a standard deviation of one day.

To avoid stockouts with probability P(z < +3.00), what should be the reorder point?

Question 4

Suppose a gas station has expected daily sales of 1500 gallons, normally distributed with a standard deviation of 400 gallons. Expected lead time is four days, normally distributed with a standard deviation of one day.

To avoid stockouts with probability P(z < +3.00), what should be the reorder point?

Question 5

Suppose a gas station has daily sales of 1500. Lead time is four days and orders are placed every Monday to arrive on Fridays.

What should the order quantities be if:

Safety stock and on-hand inventory at the time of ordering are zero?

Safety stock is 1000 gallons and on-hand inventory at the time of ordering is 3000 gallons?

Safety stock is 3000 gallons and on-hand inventory at the time of ordering is also 3000 gallons?

Question 6

A grocery store sells fresh cookies, which are only sold for one day. Any unsold cookies are donated to charity for a tax deduction:

Unit revenue is $1.00

Unit cost is $0.50

Unit salvage value is $0.20

What is the optimal service level?

Assume demand is normally distributed with mean = 200 and standard deviation = 25, and the z-score for the optimal service level was approximated as 0.3, what is the optimal stocking level?

- For Coronado Industries, sales is $2500000, fixed expenses are $900000, and the contribution margin ratio is 36%. What is required sales in dollars to earn a target net income of $700000?

- Swifty Corporation reported sales of $1600000 last year (80000 units at $20 each), when the break-even point was 72000 units. Swifty’s margin of safety ratio is?

- In 2016, Coronado Industries sold 3000 units at $750 each. Variable expenses were $460 per unit, and fixed expenses were $780000. The same variable expenses per unit and fixed expenses are expected for 2017. If Coronado cuts selling price by 4%, what is Coronado’s break-even point in units for 2017?

- Vaughn Manufacturing sells two types of computer hard drives. The sales mix is 30% (Q-Drive) and 70% (Q-Drive Plus). Q-Drive has variable costs per unit of $165 and a selling price of $210. Q-Drive Plus has variable costs per unit of $180 and a selling price of $255. The weighted-average unit contribution margin for Vaughn is?

- Bramble Corp. sells two types of computer hard drives. The sales mix is 30% (Q-Drive) and 70% (Q-Drive Plus). Q-Drive has variable costs per unit of $150 and a selling price of $210. Q-Drive Plus has variable costs per unit of $165 and a selling price of $255. Bramble’s fixed costs are $729000. How many units of Q-Drive would be sold at the break-even point?

- Crane Company can produce and sell only one of the following two products:

	Oven	Contribution
	Hours Required	Margin per Unit
Muffins	0.2	$2
Coffee Cakes	0.3	$8

The company has oven capacity of 2250 hours. How much will contribution margin be if it produces only the most profitable product?

- Crane Company has sales of $1000000, variable costs of $400000, and fixed costs of $500000. Crane’s degree of operating leverage is?

- Sheridan Company has sales of $2500000, variable costs of $1000000, and fixed costs of $810000. Sheridan’s margin of safety ratio is?

Flexible Budgeting and Variance Analysis

I Love My Chocolate Company makes dark chocolate and light chocolate. Both products require cocoa and sugar. The following planning information has been made available:

Standard Amount per Case
	Dark Chocolate		Light Chocolate		Standard Price per Pound
Cocoa	10 lbs.		7 lbs.		$4.60
Sugar	8 lbs.		12 lbs.		0.60
Standard labor time	0.3 hr.		0.4 hr.

	Dark Chocolate		Light Chocolate
Planned production	3,900 cases		10,300 cases
Standard labor rate	$14.50 per hr.		$14.50 per hr.

I Love My Chocolate Company does not expect there to be any beginning or ending inventories of cocoa or sugar. At the end of the budget year, I Love My Chocolate Company had the following actual results:

	Dark Chocolate		Light Chocolate
Actual production (cases)	3,700		10,700
	Actual Price per Pound		Actual Pounds Purchased and Used
Cocoa	$4.70		112,500
Sugar	0.55		154,100
	Actual Labor Rate		Actual Labor Hours Used
Dark chocolate	$14.10 per hr.		1,010
Light chocolate	14.90 per hr.		4,390

Required:

1. Prepare the following variance analyses for both chocolates and the total, based on the actual results and production levels at the end of the budget year:

     a. Direct materials price variance, direct materials quantity variance, and total variance.

     b. Direct labor rate variance, direct labor time variance, and total variance.

Enter a favorable variance as a negative number using a minus sign and an unfavorable variance as a positive number.

a.	Direct materials price variance	$
	Direct materials quantity variance	$
	Total direct materials cost variance	$
b.	Direct labor rate variance	$
	Direct labor time variance	$
	Total direct labor cost variance	$

2. The variance analyses should be based on the   amounts at   volumes. The budget must flex with the volume changes. If the   volume is different from the planned volume, as it was in this case, then the budget used for performance evaluation should reflect the change in direct materials and direct labor that will be required for the   production. In this way, spending from volume changes can be separated from efficiency and price variances.

The following multipart problem asks you to derive a number of characteristics of an extrasolar planetary system. Assume that the planet has been detected by Kepler with the transit method, and that the transits are periodic (as shown below, a dip in the lightcurve indicates that a planet has moved in front of the star).

(a) The star has 3 times the mass of the sun (i.e., M∗ = 3.0M⊙) and the period of the transits are 2.0 Earth years (i.e, the orbital period of the planet around its star is twice the orbital period of the Earth around the sun Tp = 2.0T⊕). To make things interesting, let’s imagine that the planet is in an elliptical orbit with eccentricity e = 0.3. What is the perihelion of the extrasolar planet to it’s star in a.u.? (Remember that the radius of the Earth’s orbit around the sun is a⊕ = 1 a.u., it might help to eliminate some constants).

(b) If the star has its maximum emission (observed flux per unit wavelength interval) at a wavelength of λp,∗ = 250nm what is the temperature of the star T∗? (Hint: note that the sun has it’s peak emission λp,⊙ = 500nm and has a temperature of T⊙ = 5, 800K, use ratios!)

(c) If the star has twice the radius of the sun R∗ = 3.0R⊙, what is the luminosity of the star relative to that of the sun L∗/L⊙?

(d) Now, using the relative luminosity of the star to the sun, L∗/L⊙, from part (c), the relative distances of the Earth to the sun, d⊕, and the average distance of the planet to its star, dp calculate the no-greenhouse temperature of the planet as follows: First, assume that all of the properties of the atmosphere and the planet’s surface (i.e., the emissivity, absorptivity, pollution, etc.) are the same as those of the Earth. Also assume that the radius of the planet is equal to twice that of the Earth Rp = 2R⊙. Solve for the ratio of the temperature of the planet to that of the Earth (Tp = T⊙). Then, use the average temperature of the Earth T⊕ = 256K to find Tp. Do you want to live on this planet? (Note: the no- greenhouse temperature is that temperature for which the total power absorbed by the planet, equals the total power re-radiated into space assuming the planet is a perfect black-body)

QUESTION 1

a) It is now known the average rate of infection from the spread of corona virus endemic in a certain city daily is 2. Assume a suitable distribution to model the process.

b) Write a matlab program for model the probability of infection for the next 15 days.

c) Run as simulated plot for the Probability distribution and Cumulative distribution from the program above.

d) Using Simulation model estimate the probability that 3 people will infected in the next two days.

QUESTION 2

a) i) Based on a graph of the probability distribution (Q1d) indicate the probability that 3 persons will contract the virus in a given day

ii) Find the mean and standard deviation of the number of infections from (Q1) in the past three days.

b) The recent global climate change has necessitated the need for a new model for predicting weather patterns. Two scientists who were modeling this process in Ghana ended up with two different system models.

i) What could be the possible reason(s) for the differences in their system model? Justify your answer.

ii) In relation to real world data from the process how can you select the best model to employ for subsequent simulations and prediction of the process?

QUESTION 3

We wish to model the blood type of a person. It is known that blood type is inherited. If both parents carry genes for the AS and AS blood types, each child has probability 0.3 of getting two S genes and so of having blood type SS. Different children inherit independently of each other.

a) Write a Matlab program to determine the probability that the first child these parents have with type SS blood is their fifth child.

b) In relation to the three classifications of mathematical models, discuss the given genetic modelling problem in 2(a).

c) The administration of the Kasoa Government hospital wants to improve its quality of service by reducing the waiting time of travelers. For that purpose, they want to design what could be the best queuing strategy to have the minimum waiting time. You have been task to advice on the best queuing strategy in order to reduce the waiting time of patients before attended to. Discuss how you will address the problem

1. Apply What You’ve Learned - Investing in Stocks and Bonds

Scenario: You are 30 years old and willing to invest $2,000 every other month for the next 15 years. You prefer a conservative-to-moderate investment strategy and have a risk-averse to risk-neutral tolerance for risk. Your highest priority in your investment strategy is preparing you and any family that you might have in the future for your retirement. You also regularly set aside money into savings and CDs to pay for vacations or similar large-ticket items. You've assembled a table of information and company descriptions for some new stocks and bonds that you are thinking about adding to your investment portfolio. Currently, your portfolio consists of 20 blue-chip stocks, and you're thinking about increasing your diversification by adding some different types of stocks.

The following are descriptions of potential firms to be added to your portfolio:

•	Celestial Crane Cosmetics, Inc. is its industry leader with sales of $1.25 billion. It is a safe and solid investment, and has a beta of 1.0.
•	Blue Panda Ice Cream Company's sales and profits are tied to customer incomes and the state of the economy. As a result, it has a beta of about 1.0.
•	Black Sheep Broadcasting has the lion's share of the market and has widespread name recognition. The company earns above-average earnings, pays reasonable dividends, and has a high P/E ratio. It has a beta of 1.75.
•	Lumbering Ox Truckmakers has invented a truly new product that may revolutionize its industry. Lumbering Ox's share price is rising but if the company can't get its essential inventory and critical components or if its marketing plan isn't successful then its sales and profits will decrease significantly and the company could fail. The result is a fluctuating P/E ratio and a beta of 2.30.

If you wanted to invest in a blue-chip stock company (based on index), you should invest in _____________ . (Lumbering ox truckmakers / Black sheep Broadcasting / Blue panda ice cream company / Celestial crane costmetics Inc.)

If you wanted to invest in a cyclical stock company, you should invest in ________________ . (Lumbering ox truckmakers / Black sheep Broadcasting / Blue panda ice cream company / Celestial crane costmetics Inc.)

If you wanted to invest in a growth stock company, you should invest in ____________________ . (Lumbering ox truckmakers / Black sheep Broadcasting / Blue panda ice cream company / Celestial crane costmetics Inc.)

If you wanted to invest in a speculative stock company (based on industry), you should invest in ___________________ . (Lumbering ox truckmakers / Black sheep Broadcasting / Blue panda ice cream company / Celestial crane costmetics Inc.)

Now, think about the available attributes of common and preferred stock issues and bond issues, and answer the following questions.

If you want to invest in a security that pays you a stable cash flow every six months, then you should consider investing in__________________ . (Preferred stock / Common stock / Bonds)

If you want to invest in a security that allows you to participate in the selection of a company’s management team, including its board of directors, then you should invest in______________ . (Preferred stock / Common stock / Bonds)

If you want to be able to purchase additional shares before new shares are offered to the public, then you should ensure that common shares have a __________________ . (Market right / Preemptive right / Proportional right)

Assume that you’ve selected the investments that you want to add to your portfolio. Now you must consider who to contact to make the purchases and the types of orders to place.

If you wanted to discuss and verify your ideas with a real person (broker) and review firm-provided research reports, then you should use ______________ . (an online discount brokerage / a full service brokerage firm)

If you wanted to place a buy order that requires your new shares to be purchased at the best possible price that does not exceed a specified price, then you should ask for a _________________ order. (Stop loss / Market / Limit )

If you wanted to place a buy order that requires your new shares to be purchased at the current prevailing price with no other limits or special instructions then you should ask for ________________order. (Stop loss / Market / Limit )

Lisp

In the language Lisp1 , each of the four basic arithmetic operators appears before an arbitrary number of operands, which are separated by spaces. The resulting expression is enclosed in parentheses. The operators behave as follows:

(+ a b c ...) returns the sum of all the operands, and (+) returns 0.

(- a b c ...) returns a - b - c - ..., and (- a) returns -a. The minus operator must have at least one operand.

(* a b c ...) returns the product of all the operands, and (*) returns 1.

(/ a b c ...) returns a / b / c /..., and (/ a) returns 1 / a. The divide operator must have at least one operand.

You can form larger arithmetic expressions by combining these basic expressions using a fully parenthesized prefix notation. For example, the following is a valid Lisp expression:

(+ (- 6) (* 2 3 4) (/ (+ 3) (*) (- 2 3 1)))

This expression is evaluated successively as follows:

(+ (- 6) (* 2 3 4) (/ 3 1 -2))

(+ -6 24 -1.5)

16.5

Write a program that reads such expressions and demonstrates your algorithm. We have provided you some starter code, and you are asked to complete the rest.

LISPTOKEN

package hw5;

public class LispToken

{

private Character operator;

private Double operand;

private boolean isOperator;

/** Constructors for objects of class LispToken. */

public LispToken(Character anOperator)

{

operator = anOperator;

isOperator = true;

operand = 0.0;

}

public LispToken(Double value)

{

operand = value;

isOperator = false;

operator = ' ';

}

/** TODO: Applies this operator to two given operand values.

@param value1 The value of the first operand.

@param value2 The value of the second operand.

@return The real result of the operation.

TODO: You need to complete this method.

*/

public Double applyOperator(Double value1, Double value2)

{

}

/** Gets the identity value of this operator.

For example, x + 0 = x, so 0 is the identity for +

and will be the value associated with the expression (+).

@return The identity value of the operator. */

public Double getIdentity()

{

Double result = 0.0;

switch (operator)

{

case '+':

result = 0.0;

break;

case '-':

result = 0.0;

break;

case '*':

result = 1.0;

break;

case '/':

result = 1.0;

break;

}

return result;

}

/** Detects whether this operator returns a value when it has no operands.

@return True if the operator returns a value when it has no operands,

or false if not. */

public boolean takesZeroOperands()

{

boolean result = false;

switch (operator)

{

case '+':

result = true;

break;

case '-':

result = false;

break;

case '*':

result = true;

break;

case '/':

result = false;

break;

}

return result;

}

/** Gets the value of this operand.

@return The real value of the operand. */

public Double getValue()

{

return operand;

}

/** Returns true if the object is an operator.

@return True is this object is an operator. */

public boolean isOperator()

{

return isOperator;

}

public String toString()

{

String result = null;

if (isOperator)

result = operator.toString();

else

result = operand.toString();

return result;

}

}

LISPQUESTION

package hw5;

import java.util.Scanner;

import java.util.Stack;

public class LispQuestion

{

/** Evaluates a Lisp expression.

The algorithm:

Scan the tokens in the string.

If you see "(", push the next operator onto the stack.

If you see an operand, push it onto the stack.

If you see ")",

Pop operands and push them onto a second stack

until you find an operator.

Apply the operator to the operands on the second stack.

Push the result on the stack.

If you run out of tokens, the value on the top of the stack is

the value of the expression.

@param lispExp A string that is a valid lisp expression.

@return A double that is the value of the expression.

@TODO: You need to complete this method. This method must call the applyOperator from LispToken class.

*/

public static double evaluate(String lispExp)

{

}

public static void main (String args[])

{

Double result;

String test1 = "(+ (- 6) (* 2 3 4) (/ (+ 3) (*) (- 2 3 1)))";

result = evaluate(test1);

System.out.println("Expression " + test1 + " evaluates to " + result);

String test2 = "(+ (- 632) (* 21 3 4) (/ (+ 32) (*) (- 21 3 1)))";

result = evaluate(test2);

System.out.println("Expression " + test2 + " evaluates to " + result);

String test3 = "(+ (/ 2) (* 2) (/ (+ 1) (+) (- 2 1 )))";

result = evaluate(test3);

System.out.println("Expression " + test3 + " evaluates to " + result);

}

}

/*

Expression (+ (- 6) (* 2 3 4) (/ (+ 3) (*) (- 2 3 1))) evaluates to 16.5

Expression (+ (- 632) (* 21 3 4) (/ (+ 32) (*) (- 21 3 1))) evaluates to -378.11764705882354

Expression (+ (/ 2) (* 2) (/ (+ 1) (+) (- 2 1 ))) evaluates to Infinity

*/

1. Silicon is the main ingredient of both glass and semiconductor materials. Why are the physical properties of glass different from those of semiconductors?

1. The silicon atoms in semiconductors are bonded with oxygen atoms to form a crystal; in semiconductors the silicon is pure and thus forms the amorphous structure.

2. Silicon has no effect on the properties of glass and semiconductors.

3. The silicon atoms in semiconductors form a crystal; in glass they are bonded with oxygen atoms to form the amorphous silicon dioxide.

4. The silicon in glass does not have elec- trons, while the silicon in semiconductors does.

002 The three main rock types are distinguished on the basis of which of the following charac- teristics?

I) composition

II) texture

III) size and shape of mineral or rock grains

1. I only

2. III only

3. I, II and III

4. I and II only

5. II only

003 Which of the following are all examples of minerals?

1. petroleum, coal, iron, feldspar, basalt

2. water, mercury, metallic hydrogen, lime-stone

3. copper, ice, quartz, topaz, diamond, corundum

4. gold, silver, uranium, lead, silica, iron

5. bronze, steel, glass, aluminium, pencil lead

004 Common examples of sulfide and sulfate minerals, respectively, are

1. galena and pyrite.

2. fluorite and pyrite.

3. galena and gypsum.

4. galena and hematite.

5. gypsum and anhydrite.

005 Cleavage is defined as

1. None of these

2. planes of a fracture resulting from strong bonds.

3. smooth, flat, reflective surfaces.

4. planes of weak bonds along which a mineral splits.

5. surfaces of a smooth, curved fracture.

006 Minerals originate from crystallization of

1. molten magma.

2. All of these

3. chemical alteration of pre-existing minerals.

4. hydrothermal solutions.

5. seawater.

007 Which of the following is an example of a mineral resource?

1. sand

2. salt

3. All of these

4. gold

5. petroleum

008 For minerals classified within any one silicate group, which of the following is true?

1. None of these

2. They have similar physical properties.

3. They have similar chemical compositions.

4. They have similar arrangements of silicate tetrahedra.

5. They have similar bonds.

009 Dolomite belongs to which mineral group?

1. sulfates

2. sulfides

3. halides

4. carbonates

010 For what is chromium commonly used?

1. catalytic converters

2. aluminum ore

3. brake linings and lubricants

4. carbide-cutting tool parts

5. wiring

6. stainless steel

011 When metals react with oxygen they form

1. new elements

2. oxides

3. metalloids

4. halides

012 Limestone structures made of the skeletal structures of living organisms are

1. organic reefs.

2. organic colonies.

3. inorganic reefs.

4. inorganic colonies.

5. None of these

013 The rock cycle is an illustration of three different rock types and

1. their potential change over time.

2. their relation to internal and external processes.

3. All of these

4. their environments of formation.

014 Which of the following best describes sedimentary rocks?

1. deposition of ash and larger particles produced by volcanism

2. compaction and cementation of rock fragments, precipitates, and organic matter

3. weathering, transport, and deposition of sediment from pre-existing rock

4. alteration of sediment by heat, pressure,and chemical activity of water

015 Precipitation from solution is a characteristic of which type of rock?

1. sedimentary

2. igneous

3. metamorphic

016 Plutonic rocks form

I) below the surface of the ground.

II) above the surface of the ground.

III) by crystallization of magmas intruded into surrounding rocks.

1. II only

2. I only

3. I and III only

4. I, II and III

5. III only

017 A sill is a

1. concordant, tabular body of intrusive igneous rocks that warps rocks upward.

2. concordant, tabular body of intrusive igneous rocks.

3. discordant, tabular body of intrusive igneous rocks.

4. discordant, massive body of intrusive igneous rocks.

5. concordant, tabular body of extrusive igneous rocks.

018 An example of a shield volcano is

1. Mount St. Helens.

2. Mount Shasta.

3. Mount Mazama.

4. Fujiyama.

5. Kilauea.

019 An example of a composite volcano is

1. Nevado del Ruiz, Columbia.

2. Mount Vesuvius, Italy.

3. All of these

4. Fujiyama, Japan.

5. Mount St. Helens, Washinton.

020 Weathering is classified into which of the following categories?

1. mechanistic and compositional

2. mechanical and physical

3. physical and chemical

4. organic and inorganic

5. chemical and mechanical

021 The rounding and sorting of detrital sediment is a function of

I) the transport process or mechanism.

II) the transport distance.

III) depositional environment.

1. I only

2. II only

3. II and III only

4. I, II and III

5. III only

022 Sedimentary rocks include

1. any layered rock consisting of grains.

2. rocks which have been altered by compression.

3. any material which has settled from water.

4. rocks which have been weathered.

5. organic, rock and mineral fragments, and precipitated minerals.

023 10.0 During the process of lithification, sedimentary rocks experience which of the following?

I) cementation

II) compaction

III) dereased void space

1. II only

2. I only

3. III only

4. I and II only

5. I, II and III

024 Metamorphism is physical and chemical change that occurs in such a way that

1. the rock reaches equilibrium with its new environment.

2. a dynamic equilibrium is reached.

3. equilibrium with the new environment is disturbed.

4. disequilibrium is reached with the new physical and chemical environment.

5. the rock�s chemistry and texture become increasingly unstable.

025 Contact metamorphism is found along the boundaries between country rock and

1. dikes.

2. sills.

3. laccoliths.

4. All of these

5. bathoiths.

026 What is the parent rock type for Greenstone?

1. SIX

2. shale/mudrocks

3. mafic igneous rocks

4. lowgrade coal

5. quartz sandstone

6. feldspar and quartz sandstone (arkose)

027 Among the mineral resources NOT found in deep sea sediments are

1. reef rock.

2. sand and gravel.

3. iron, copper, and zinc.

4. silver and gold.

5. manganese nodules.

028 Volcanic rocks can usually be distinguished from plutonic rocks by

1. composition.

2. color.

3. the size of their mineral grains.

4. iron-magnesium content.

5. weight.

029 The process whereby dissolved mineral matter precipitates in the pore spaces of sediment and binds it together is

1. arkose.

2. compaction.

3. ionic bonding.

4. cementation.

5. weathering.

030 Which of the following metamorphic rocks displays a foliated texture?

1. marble

2. greenstone

3. schist

4. hornfels

5. quartzite

031 The principle of the rock cycle is that

1. any rock can be transformed into a new rock of the same or a different class.

2. rocks progress from sedimentary to metamorphic to igneous and back to sedimentary.

3. the first rocks on Earth were igneous and now all rocks are sedimentary.

4. all rocks can become sediments but only metamorphic rocks can become sedimentary

rocks.

5. rocks progress from igneous to metamorphic and sedimentary to metamorphic over

time.

032 Sedimentary rocks composed of broken shells or particles of pre-existing rocks are said to

have a

1. porphyritic texture.

2. crystalline texture.

3. biogenic texture.

4. microcrystalline texture.

5. clastic texture.

033 Graded bedding forms when

1. sediment is deposited on a steep slope or grade.

2. erosion planes off a portion of the sea bottom.

3. turbidity currents deposit first fine sediment followed by coarse sediment.

4. cross-bedding is truncated.

5. turbidity currents deposit first coarse sediment then fine sediment.

034 The three major structural parts of the Earth are

1. lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

2. core, mantle and crust.

3. lithosphere, atmosphere and crust.

4. mantle, crust and atmosphere.

035 If no one has ever visited the core of the Earth, how do we know that it is composed of metals?

1. Circulating liquid metals in the core set up a large (measurable) magnetic field.

2. Spectroscopy allows us to tell what the core is made of by analyzing the light we see

from it.

3. There is NO evidence that the Earth�s core has metals.

4. Core material seeps up through volcanoes in the crust.

5. The amount of radioactivity shows metals must be present; only metals are radioac-

tive.

036 Earthquake-producing faults are much more likely to be found

1. in smooth continental desert areas.

2. where the Earth�s magnetic field touches the planet�s surface.

3. Such faults are equally likely to be anywhere on the Earth�s crust.

4. on the boundaries of continental plates, where they meet other plates.

5. in the southern hemisphere of the Earth, where there is more water.

037 About how many kilometers (miles) is it from the Earth�s center to the outer edge of the

outer core?

1. 35 ? 72 kilometers (22 ? 45 miles)

2. 2,880 kilometers (1,800 miles)

3. 12,523 kilometers (7,827 miles)

4. 1,264 kilometers (790 miles)

5. 3,456 kilometers (2,160 miles)

038 Consider the following elements. Which lists represents the main components of the Earth�s crust?

1. oxygen, uranium, thorium

2. oxygen, silicon, aluminium

3. iron, aluminium, carbon

4. iron, hydrogen, oxygen

5. oxygen, silicon, uranium

039 As you know, Earth is layered inside. The layers have different thicknesses and densities. How do geologists know this?

1. from drilling and digging down into the various layers

2. from comparisons with drill cores taken by robot spacecraft on Mars and Venus

3. from observing the characteristics of lava and gas issuing from volcanic vents

4. None of these

5. from observing the transit times through the Earth of waves generated by large earthquakes

040 Tsunami or seismic sea waves are generated by

1. breaking internal waves.

2. storms at sea.

3. tidal currents in the open sea.

4. coastal or submarine earthquakes.

041 Earth is considered dynamic because

1. surface landscapes are constantly changing due to erosion and deposition.

2. the impact of human activity is continuous.

3. the lithosphere and asthenosphere are constantly changing.

4. rocks are susceptible to weathering.

042 Seismology has produced a great amount of information about

I) the mechanisms of plate tectonics.

II) the physical and chemical state of Earth�s interior.

III) the causes of mountain building.

1. III only

2. All of these

3. II only

4. I only

5. I and II only

043 An example of one of the strongest earthquakes of intraplate origin known in North America in historical times is

1. the 1984 Mount St. Helens, Washington, earthquake.

2. the 1811 New Madrid, Missouri, earthquake.

3. the 1964 Anchorage, Alaska, earthquake.

4. the 1906 San Francisco earthquake.

5. the 1886 Charleston, Carolina, earthquake.

044 Any one type of seismic wave will vary in its actual velocity depending on

I) the length of the route it has taken.

II) the material through which it has traveled.

III) whether it has traveled through Earth or along its surface.

IV) the depth of the hypocenter.

1. IV only

2. I only

3. II only

4. III only

5. I and II only

045 At a boundary between materials of different density and elasticity, P- and S-waves are

1. reflected.

2. not affected.

3. reflected and refracted.

4. refracted.

046 The S-wave shadow zone exists because

1. S-waves do not travel through liquids.

2. S-waves weaken substantially as they travel through liquids.

3. S-waves only travel to a certain depth.

4. S-waves are reflected off liquids.

047 P-wave velocities in continental crust are (faster than, slower than, the same as) in oceanic crust.

1. faster than

2. slower than

3. the same as

048 Which is the fourth layer of the Earth, ordering from the surface inward to the center of the Earth?

1. asthenosphere

2. inner core

3. crust

4. upper mantle

5. lower mantle

6. outer core

049 A) The S-wave shadow zone is evidence that the outer core is liquid.

B) The mantle�s density is uniform with depth at any given level.

C) P-wave rays are most commonly reflected while S-wave rays are refracted.

Which of the preceding statements is/are true?

1. None is true.

2. Only C is true.

3. A, B, and C are true.

4. Only A is true.

5. Only B and C are true.

6. Only A and C are true.

7. Only A and B are true.

8. Only B is true.

050 Plate movement is thought to be the result of

1. density differences between the mantle and core.

2. gravitational forces.

3. rotation of the mantle around the core.

4. convection cells.

5. the Coriolis effect.

051 Which of the following statements about the asthenosphere is not true?

1. It has the same composition as the lower mantle.

2. It lies beneath the lithosphere.

3. It acts like a lubricating layer allowing plates to move.

4. It is a rigid rock layer.

5. It behaves plastically.

The scenario for this assessment is a multi-specialty hospital system, the Royal Rundle Hospital (RRH), that provides a broad range of services to the community which include surgical, maternity, obstetric care, dialysis, emergency, mental health, aged and palliative care, allied health services and a 24-hour emergency department. The RRH has been serving in the region for over 50 years and has been using paper-based forms and documents to store and manage all the data with some use of spreadsheets that started not so long ago. Now that the management of RRH wants to take the advantages of Information Technology to maintain and manage the records of the various aspects of the hospital system more efficiently, they have put out a Request for Proposals (RFP) for appropriately qualified consultants to undertake a body of work that would help to scope the data requirements for such a system. With your success in your Torrens University Australia degree so far, and other similar projects that have garnered you some sustained success in the eyes of the profession and community, you have been shortlisted among no less than 10 other consultancies. There are expectations from them, then, as to the standard of report you will produce. The management of the RRH has provided you with an overview and description of the hospital system as below Overview: The Royal Rundle Hospital (RRH) is a multi-specialty hospital that includes a number of departments, rooms, doctors, nurses, compounders, and other staff working in the hospital. Patients having different kinds of ailments come to the hospital and get checkup done from the relevant doctors. If required they are admitted in the hospital and discharged after treatment. The hospital maintains the records of various departments, rooms, and doctors in the hospital besides the most important records of the regular patients, patients admitted in the hospital, the checkup of patients done by the doctors, the patients that have been operated, and patients discharged from the hospital. Description: In RRH, there are many departments like Orthopedic, Pathology, Emergency, Dental, Gynecology, Anesthetics, I.C.U., Blood Bank, Operation Theater, Laboratory, M.R.I., Neurology, Cardiology, Cancer Department, Corpse, etc. There is an OPD where patients come and get a card (that is, entry card of the patient) for check up from the relevant doctor. After making entry in the card, they go to the relevant doctor’s room and the doctor checks up their ailments. According to the ailments, the doctor either prescribes medicine or admits the patient in the relevant department. The patient may choose either private or general room according to his/her need. But before getting admission in the hospital, the patient has to fulfill certain formalities of the hospital like room charges, etc. After the treatment is completed, the doctor discharges the patient. Before discharging from the hospital, the patient again has to complete certain formalities of the hospital like balance charges, test charges, operation charges (if any), blood charges, doctors’ charges, etc. Next, the management talks about the doctors of the hospital. There are two types of the doctors in the hospital, namely, regular doctors and call-on doctors. Regular doctors are those doctors who come to the hospital daily. Call-on doctors are those doctors who are called by the hospital if the relevant regular doctor is not available.

Task:- System vision document. Please include all three parts of document. Problem description, system capabilities, business benefits

BOSE: HIGH-END SOUND REPRODUCTION

The sound reproduction has become one of the areas in which technological innovations have made the most profound leaps forward. Leading the way are major competitors such as Sony, Philips, Trivoli Audio, and Bose. Many forms of sound delivery exist, some featuring earphones and headphones, and others through stand-alone speakers.

The Bose Corporation began operations in 1964. Amar G. Bose, a professor of electrical engineering at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, became frustrated during his attempt to purchase a high-quality stereo system. He believed that the speakers that were available had impressive technical specifications but failed to reproduce the realism of a live performance. Four years later, the first Bose product reached the market. In a very short time, Bose has delivered a series of innovations in sound.

Currently, the Bose Wave products are at the forefront of quality sound,including the Wave radio,Wave music system, and Acoustic Wave music system.Each is designed to deliver the most realistic sound through a compact, attractive device that will fit in any room in the home or office.The product can be linked with a dock that both plays and recharges an ipod.Another product allows the user to wirelessly play and store music from an internet radio station. Other Bose products include headphones, home theater systems, speakers, and sound systems for various locations, including boats and businesses.

Bose systems are on the high end in terms of price.For example, the most widely purchased Wave music system had a list price of $499.95 in November 2009.To entice buyers, product discounts are routinely offered, including a $100.00 price reduction when the Wave is purchased with the accompanying multi-CD changer.Also, Bose offers 1-year interest -free financing.

The Bose marketing program includes use of traditional media, most notably television, newspaper, and magazine advertising.The company’s Website allows buyers to find and purchase all items online.The company employs a limited number of retail stores that feature the Bose line. The primary marketing emphasis remains focused on quality.For example, Fortune rated the Bose QuietComfort headset, which cancels outside noise , as the best-quality option for headphones.

Although a company’s reputation for quality may help to drive sales, outside factors can interfare.The recession which began in 2008 and continued in to 2009 led many shoppers to cut back purchases, especially for more expensive luxury items.Bose was not immune to this

trend.The company was forced to lay off nearly 1000 workers, or 10 percent of its labor force, during the decline.

At the same time, Bose forged ahead, seeking to develop new technologies in areas other than sound.As the economy continues to recover, business analysts expect Bose to build on its core products while moving into new areas, furthering the growth of this innovative , energetic organization.

QUESTION 1 (Answer ALL parts)

1. Identify the market segmets that the Bose Wave products should continue to maintain.

2. Should Bose continue to compete based on high-price/high-quality positioning, or should it develop programs to reduce prices and entice a wider variety of shoppers?

3. Discuss the decision process and the influences on it that the consumers in this segment are likely to go through when buying Bose products.